It’s too late for all this…long day…but it sure makes a whole make lot of sense:
ยง 5212. Insurance of troubled assets
(a) Authority
(1) In general
If the Secretary establishes the program authorized
under section 5211 of this title, then
the Secretary shall establish a program to
guarantee troubled assets originated or issued
prior to March 14, 2008, including mortgagebacked
securities.
(2) Guarantees
In establishing any program under this subsection,
the Secretary may develop guarantees
of troubled assets and the associated premiums
for such guarantees. Such guarantees
and premiums may be determined by category
or class of the troubled assets to be guaranteed.
(3) Extent of guarantee
Upon request of a financial institution, the
Secretary may guarantee the timely payment
of principal of, and interest on, troubled assets
in amounts not to exceed 100 percent of such
payments. Such guarantee may be on such
terms and conditions as are determined by the
Secretary, provided that such terms and conditions
are consistent
https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/USCODE-2010-title12/pdf/USCODE-2010-title12-chap52-subchapI-sec5212.pdf
SO HOW THE HECK CAN YOU FIND OUT IF YOUR SERVICER/TRUSTEE/WHOEVER IS PRETENDNG TO OWN YOUR LOAN WAS ALREADY PAID OFF? HOWWW???
You guys always allude to these theories that seem to be intuitively correct…but never tell us how to get concrete proof.
This is the perverse incentive/smoking gun for why the banks will not settle with homeowners. They can claim 100% now rather than wait 30-40 years on modification payments. They can also take the home after receiving full payment on the mortgage loan guarantee. I wonder if the taxpayers are subrogated in the homes. We have no evidence that the empty securitization trusts are receiving foreclosure proceeds and no one is getting their mortgage notes back upon confirmation of sale or bankruptcy discharge.